Answers

 

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1) What is a gene?

a) Any piece of DNA encoding more than 1000 bases

b) Any string of A, T, G or C on a chromosome

c) Any piece of infectious DNA which is surrounded by protein

d) A segment of DNA which contains the code for one protein as well as a

promoter/switch

e) A segment of DNA which contains all the code for one cell

 

2) The size of the human genome is dispersed on 23 chromosomes in duplicate, and consists ofÉ

a) 350,000 genes

b) 30,000 genes

c) 5,000 genes

d) 40,000 chromosome regions

e) 30,000 chromosome regions

 

3) A mutation is best described asÉ

a) An increase in insulin production due to ingestion of large amounts of sugar

b) A change in the code of a gene only associated with depression

c) Any change in the code of a gene that causes a large and permanent effect on insulin levels

d) An alteration in the code of a gene that only causes a recessive genetic disease

e) An alteration in the code of a gene which can have good, bad or no effects upon

the function of a gene.

 

4) Cystic Fibrosis is a genetic disease that can best be characterized asÉ.

a) Caused by excess fiber in the diet leading to cysts in stools

b) Recessive

c) Dominant

d) Qualitative

e) None of the above

 

5) What type of genetic disease is Huntington's disease?

a) Caused by exposure to the toxin of the Huntington virus

b) Recessive

c) Neutral

d) Quantitative

e) None of the above

 

 

 

 

 

6) Downs syndrome is a result ofÉ.

a) polyploidy on chromosome 25

b) A neutral mutation in the code of a gene on chromosome 23

c) polyploidy on chromosome 27

d) A recessive mutation

e) polyploidy at chromosome 21

 

7) What is a stem cell?

a) A type of cell which makes insulin in the pancreas

b) A type of which blocks or stems blood flow into or out of the heart

c) A type of cell which can make a copy of itself and many other cell types

d) A type of cell which makes the protein rhodopsin in the eye

e) A type of cell which is lost from the brain in ParkinsonŐs disease patients.

 

8) A cell line is characterized by the capacity to be grownÉ.

a) for a short period of time in a petri dish

b) for no longer then 2 weeks in an incubator

c) indefinitely in a petri dish

d) indefinitely in the body

e) none of the above

 

9) A totipotent stem cell has the capacity to makeÉ

a) most of the different white blood cells

b) some cell types in the body

c) one cell type in the body

d) all cell types in the body

e) only some cells in the cardiovascular system

 

10) What is a nuclear transfer stem cell?

a) A stem cell, which contains radiation-damaged DNA

b) A stem cell, which can migrate between different areas of the brain

c) A stem cell, which was constructed by transferring the DNA from an adult cell into an enucleated (nucleus removed) embryonic cell or egg

d) A stem cell, which was constructed by transferring DNA from an embryonic cell into an adult cell

e) A stem cell, which was constructed by transferring the protein from an adult cell into

an embryonic germ cell

 

 

 

 

 

 

11) Where are stem cells routinely used medically and have been for a few decades?

a) In treating genetic immune deficiencies

b) In treating diabetes

c) In treating leukemia (bone marrow transplant)

d) In treating leukemia (stem cells as a chemotherapeutic agent)

e) In treating ParkinsonŐs disease

 

12) What is the difference between identical twins and fraternal twins?

a) Fraternal twins is where two genetically identical embryos fuse to form a chimera;

identical twins is where the chimera splits

b) Identical twins is where two genetically different embryos implant; fraternal twins is

where one embryo splits to form two genetically identical individuals

c) Identical twins tend to be taller than fraternal twins

d) Identical twins do not share physical characteristics while fraternal twins are the same

e) none of the above

 

13) If you wanted to test whether someone in the future was cloned using your genetic information, you would most likely ask them forÉ

a) permission to wear their socks

b) permission to see where they live

c) permission to obtain a blood sample

d) permission to gather their adoptive sisters genetic information

e) permission to gather their adoptive parents genetic information

 

14) What problems might arise for making human clones?

a) Birth defects as the adult DNA may not be competent to be fully re-programmed for complete human development

b) Moving the nucleus into the embryonic cell leaves a non-sealing hole in the nucleus

c) The donorŐs DNA will contain too much of the synaptic experience of the donor to allow reprogramming

d) The nuclear DNA of the donor will not be compatible with that of the acceptor cell

e) None of the above

 

15) If and when human clones appear, what will be the only reliable way of testing if they really are clones?

a) Similar facial appearance between the clones

b) Similar personality between the clones

c) Similar body height between the clones

d) Similar intelligence between the clones

e) The same genetic fingerprint

 

 

 

16) Which of the following modifications is likely to be a result of a somatic mutation?

a)A change in the parentŐs DNA modifies their offspringŐs intelligence

b) A change in the parentŐs DNA modifies their own intelligence

c) A change in the parentŐs DNA modifies their unborn offspringŐs ability to be athletic

d) A parent modifies their offspringŐs capacity to read quickly by changing the home environment

e) None of the above

 

17) Gene therapy has been successfully used to treatÉ

a) ParkinsonŐs disease

b) diabetes

c) Severe Combined Immune Deficiency (SCID)

d) AlzheimerŐs disease

e) None of the above

 

18) Which of the below best describes a viral vector used for human gene therapy?

a) A viral vector is the direction a virus moves into the cell

b) A viral vector is a virus, attenuated so that it does not cause damage, and

containing a gene to be introduced into a patientŐs genome

c) A viral vector is a virus which kills patients with immune disorders

d) A viral vector is a virus, attenuated so that it does not cause damage, and containing a

protein to be introduced into a patientŐs bloodstream

e) None of the above

 

20) The point of connection between neurons in which various neurotransmitters are ŇdumpedÓ and reabsorbed can best be defined as theÉ

a) Soma

b) Cell body

c) Axons

d) Synapse

e) None of the above

 

21) Which of the below best describes the process of how connections form between neurons in the developing brain?

a) All initial connections are completely random but later these connections alter

according to the environment

b) In general, neurons form very specific connections to various parts of the brain;

in those locations, the exact pattern of synapses is often dependent upon the

experience

c) In general, neurons form very specific connections to various parts of the brain; in

those locations, the exact pattern of synapses is completely determined by the genome

d) In general, neurons form very specific connections to various parts of the brain; in

those locations, the pattern of synapses is never dependent upon the genome

22) How long does it take the eye to collect an image?

a) 30 ms

b) 1 seconds

c) 3 seconds

d) 3 ms

e) None of the above

 

23) How long does it take to extract information such as a face and then features in a face?

a) 100 ms and 200ms

b) 200 ms and 20 ms

c) 0.1 ms and 10 ms

d) 1 s and 5 s

e) None of the above

 

24) How does the brain compute space for touch: for instance how does the brain discriminate between a simultaneous touch to the foot and face?

a) By measuring the difference in time it takes for the signals to travel to the brain

b) By having a map in the brain such that there is a place that represents touch to

the face and touch to the foot.

c) The foot connects to the cerebrum and the face connects to the midbrain

d) The face has more connections to the brain than the foot

e) None of the above

 

25) What is a critical period in neuronal development?

a) A time when all synapses connect in the brain

b) The time when axons extend to form a first connections in the brain

c) A time when neurons are born in the developing brain

d) A relatively short time in which information from the environment (such as

vision) plays an instructive role in determining synaptic connections.

e) None of the above

 

26) What do neurotransmitters do?

a) Neurotransmitters are electrons that carry visual signals around the brain

b) Neurotransmitters are physical devices designed to potentially connect brain to internet

c) Neurotransmitters indirectly convey an electrical signal from one neuron to another

d) Neurotransmitters carry electrical signals along axons

e) None of the above

 

 

 

 

 

27) Where and when are neurotransmitters released?

a) Neurotransmitters are released from synapses at the ends of axons in response to

an electrical signal arriving there

b) Neurotransmitters are released from the cell body only

c) Neurotransmitters are released from synapses at the ends of axons at all times

d) Neurotransmitters are released from synapses after blood sugar rises

e) None of the above

 

28) What is the relationship between the neurotransmitters glutamate and GABA?

a) Glutamate is inhibitory and GABA is excitatory

b) Glutamate and GABA are excitatory

c) Glutamate is excitatory and GABA is inhibitory

d) Glutamate is neuromodulatory and GABA is inhibitory

e) None of the above

 

29) How is the amount of dopamine or serotonin normally regulated at a synapse?

a) By altering the balance of release and re-uptake

b) By altering the amount of degradation of neurotransmitter

c) By altering the amount of neurotransmitter made in the cell

d) By altering the amount of neurotransmitter absorbed by the gut

e) None of the above

 

30) What is the difference between how LSD and how Prozac function?

a) Prozac increases serotonin levels thus activating all serotonin receptors; LSD directly binds to and affects only certain serotonin receptors

b) Prozac changes serotonin levels while LSD affects dopamine levels

c) LSD raises serotonin and dopamine levels while Prozac only raises serotonin levels

d) LSD and Prozac do the same thing except that LSD takes longer to affect the brain

e) None of the above

 

31) Which of the following best describes a virus?

a) A single cell that attacks your immune system to spread its own DNA

b) An infectious protein molecule, which can spread from cell to cell

c) A piece of infectious genetic material encapsulated in protein

d) Only those bacteria which use RNA for their genome

e) The class of proteins, which AZT targets in diseases such as AIDS

 

32) What is the most important part of dealing with emerging pathogens?

a) Treat everyone with broad-spectrum antiviral agents such as AZT

b) Monitoring how and if the disease is spreading

c) Assemble everyone to civic centers such as schools

d) Immediately give the populace antibiotics

e) All of the above

33) What type of virus is HIV?

a) DNA virus

b) Prion

c) Bacterial virus

d) Retrovirus

e) None of the above

 

34) How do we know that HIV is unlikely to be transmitted by mosquitoes?

a) Mosquitoes do not get AIDS

b) Mosquitoes do not carry HIV

c) Mosquitoes do not pass fluids between people

d) Mosquitoes do not take enough blood to ingest any of the virus that could then be transmitted

e) Statistically, those who get bitten a lot by mosquitoes are not more likely to

contract AIDS

 

35) What does reverse transcriptase do?

a) Makes protein from RNA

b) Makes DNA from RNA

c) Makes RNA from RNA

d) Makes DNA from DNA

e) Makes protein from DNA

 

36) What happens when antibiotics are used inappropriately?

a) Stimulates general bacterial growth

b) Allows the appearance of antibiotic-sensitive strains of bacteria

c) Allows the appearance of antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria

d) Allows the appearance of antibiotic-resistant strains of virus

e) None of the above

 

37) How could human clones be made?

a) By letting nuclear transfer stem cells grow into an embryo and eventually a person

b) By combining the protein of an adult cell with the nucleus of an egg

c) By fusing the cytoplasm of one egg with the nucleus of a fertilized egg

d) By placing stem cells in the brain

e) By altering the genome with a viral vector

 

38) Where in your body could you find totipotent stem cells?

a) Your brain

b) Your pancreas

c) Your liver

d) Your bloodstream

e) None of the above.

39) Why is reverse transcriptase a tempting target for HIV drugs?

a) Because humans donŐt have reverse transcriptase while the virus does

b) Because reverse transcriptase works much faster in viral cells than in human cells

c) Because reverse transcriptase only kills viruses and not human cells

d) Because so many other pathogens use reverse transcriptase, you can kill ones that you didnŐt even know were there to let the body focus on fighting HIV

e) Because the path of the virus can be traced using reverse transcriptase.

 

40) What is the difference between transcription and translation?

a) Transcription is the altering in the code of a gene and translation is the altering in the

code of the promoter

b) Transcription is the making of protein from a gene while translation is the process of

expressing a DNA fingerprint

c) Transcription is the making of mRNA from DNA and translation is the making of

proteins from mRNA

d) Transcription is the making of DNA from mRNA and translation is the making of

proteins from DNA

e) None of the above

 

41) Which of the following best describes ParkinsonŐs disease?

a) An infectious disease caused by a virus that leads to the degeneration of brain tissue

b) A recessive genetic disease causing a thick mucus in the lungs that effects breathing

and digestion

c) The inability to produce insulin in response to sugar intake resulting in a sugar imbalance

d) The death of a specific type of stem cells in the brain leading to dementia

e) The excessive loss of dopaminergic neurons in the brain leading to motor problems

 

42) How could human clones differ?

a) Environmental differences in development

b) Differences due to being raised by different families

c) Differences from having different mitochondrial DNA

d) Differences due to mutations that may have accumulated in the adult DNA genome used to generate the clones

e) All of the above

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

43) During human fetal development, when are neurons born and when do axons extend?

a) Neurons are born in the first three months and axons/synapses are mostly formed

in 3-9 months of age

b) Neurons are born in the first three weeks and axons/ synapses are mostly formed in the

first 3 years of age

c) Neurons are born in the first 6 months and axons/ synapses are mostly formed from

years 3-8 in age

d) Neurons are born in the first 9 months and axons/ synapses are mostly formed in the

first 3 months of age.

e) None of the above

 

44) What are three tricks that HIV uses to increase its potency?

a) Hit and attack cells of the immune system, transmission from person to person by

coughing, and makes new variants to escape drugs

b) Latency, transmission by mosquitoes, and resistance to antibiotics

c) Latency, hit and attack cells of the immune system, and makes new variants to escape drugs

d) Hits and attacks cells of the immune system, makes new variants to escape drugs and

is made only of a single protein that evades the immune system

e) None of the above

 

45) What is the difference between a genotype and a phenotype?

a) Genotype is the number of chromosomes in a cell while phenotype is the average

number of genes per chromosome

b) Genotype is the total amount of DNA contained in a cell while phenotype is the total

number of genes encoded by the DNA

c) Genotype is the set of genes encoded by an individualŐs DNA while phenotype is the

physical characteristics produced by an individualŐs particular set of genes and the

environment

d) Genotype is all of the genes contained in a cell while phenotype is the set of proteins

made by the cell using those genes

e) None of the above