Note: new version of key: you
have until Friday at 5:00 to protest
Exam
4: BIOL 149 2005
1. What is the correct overall order of events in
neural development?
a. Cell
birth, terminal branch formation, synapse pruning, axon extension, synapse
formation
b. Cell
birth, axon extension, terminal branch formation, synapse pruning, synapse
formation
c. Cell birth, axon extension, terminal branch formation,
synapse formation, synapse pruning
d. Axon
extension, terminal branch formation, cell birth, synapse formation, synapse
pruning
e. Axon
extension, synapse formation, synapse pruning, terminal branch formation, cell
birth
2.
Under what conditions do neurons typically form connections with one another?
a. When
a series of neurons always fire one after another
b. When
a group of which always fire in alternative times
c. When the two neurons always fire together
d. When
there are two neurons, one which fires rapidly and the other slowly
e. When both of two neurons fire strongly and
rapidly
3. Which of the
below best describes a topological neuronal map?
a. Neurons
which respond to sensory elements such as sound tones, points in space or
specific odors tend to be located next to each other in the cortex
b. Neurons
which tend to wire together tend to avoid certain mapped regions of the brain
c. A
topological map is an anatomical atlas designed for neurosurgeons to find their
way around the brain
d.
All of the above
e. None
of the above
4. How
could neurons that detect a sound associate with neurons encoding a fearful
memory, that is how are connections that associate memory formed?
a. When
neurons detecting the sound fire very strongly, such as when the sound is
presented, this induces all nearby neurons to fire. If the fear encoding neurons are nearby, these will also
fire thus causing recall of the memory of a fearful memory
b. If the neurons that detect the sound initially fired
at the same time as the neurons encoding the memory fired, these neurons would
become connected so that when the neurons that detect sound fire at a later
time so do the connected neurons encoding the fearful memory
c. Neurons
encoding sounds and emotions lie together in a topological map thus always fire
together
d. None
of the above
e. All
of the above, except d
5. What is
glutamate and what is its function in the brain?
a. Glutamate
is a drug used to treat epilepsy and is encoded by the NMDA or AMPA genes
b. Glutamate
is a substance released by synapses in response to NMDA or AMPA receptor
activation and blocks PKA function
c. Glutamate,
also called BDNF, is a neurotransmitter which activates the NMDA or AMPA
receptors
d. Glutamate,
is a neurotransmitter which blocks the function of the NMDA or AMPA receptors
e. None
of the above
5. What are the two major
glutamate receptor types and their associated functions?
a.
AMPA: drives synaptic communication; NMDA: drives plasticity and memory
formation
b. NMDA:
drives synaptic communication; AMPA: drives plasticity and memory formation
c. BDNF:
strengthens firing synapses; PKA: activates post-synaptic elements
d. PKA:
strengthens firing synapses; BDNF: activates post-synaptic elements
e. None of
the above are correct
6. For owl
prism-directed head re-orientation, this occurs in adults only in the following
scenarios:
a. If
the owl was pretreated with NMDA blockers
b. If
the owl had never been treated with prism distortion as a juvenile
c. If
the owl was treated sequentially with prisms of small steps sizes
d. If
the owl was pretreated with a cochlear implant
e. None
of the above
6. What did owl head
orientation/prism experiments show about circuit formation early in development
a. The
circuits must be trained in very small stems
b. Circuit formation requires visual/auditory input and
NMDA receptor function
c. Circuit
formation always requires the presence of previous prism distortion
d. New
circuits only form when there has been pre-exposure to the stimulus
e. All
of the above
7. With respect
to neuronal wiring, how might connections be broken?
a. Longer
term co-activation always results in degeneration of connections and thus loss
of a memory
b. Loss
of the NMDA receptor with animal maturation results in connections breaking
c. If neurons start to fire asynchronously,
their interconnections weaken and break with time.
d. The
switchover from NMDA to AMPA-type receptors causes a breakdown in synapses
e. None
of the above.
8. The human central nervous system
consists, grossly, of the following structures connected in the following
anatomical order:
a. Cortex,
brain stem, spinal cord, midbrain
b. Cortex,
midbrain, brainstem, spinal cord, cerebellum
c. Cortex,
brainstem, midbrain, cerebellum, spinal cord
d. Cortex,
midbrain, brainstem, spinal cord
e. Cortex,
spinal cord, brainstem, midbrain
9. Information entering and leaving the
cortex usually transits the below areas in the indicated orders:
a. Sensory
cortex, higher cortex, motor cortex
b. Higher
cortex, sensory cortex, motor cortex
c. Motor
cortex, higher cortex, sensory cortex
d. Higher
cortex, motor cortex, sensory cortex
e. None
of the above
What
are the functions associated with the main divisions of the human brain?
a. cerebral
cortex: higher thought
b. midbrain:
emotion
c. cerebellum:
movements
d. brain
stem: basic functions
e. all
of the above
What
are aphasias?
a. loss in the ability to decide what
motor actions to make in response to signal input
b. loss of very specific language skills
c. loss of sensation and motor control
below the point of injury
d. a decline in decision making skills
e. all of the above
10. A patient
presents to you with a gun shot wound to the cortex and complains of loss of
motor control to the arm. You
suspect:
a. Damage
to the motor cortex
b. Damage
to BrocaÕs area
c. Damage
to sensory cortex
d. Damage
to WernickeÕs area
e. Damage
to the hippocampus
11. A patient
presents to you with a gun shot wound to the cortex and complains of loss of
sensation in the arm. You suspect:
a. Damage
to the motor cortex
b. Damage
to BrocaÕs area
c. Damage
to sensory cortex
d. Damage
to WernickeÕs area
e. Damage
to the hippocampus
12. A patient
presents to you with a gun shot wound to the cortex and complains, via writing,
of an inability to speak. You
suspect:
a. Damage
to the motor cortex
b. Damage
to BrocaÕs area
c. Damage
to sensory cortex
d. Damage
to WernickeÕs area
e. Damage
to the hippocampus
13. A patient
presents to you with a gun shot wound to the cortex and shows no ability to
hold recent memories. You suspect:
a. Damage
to the motor cortex
b. Damage
to BrocaÕs area
c. Damage
to sensory cortex
d. Damage
to WernickeÕs area
e. Damage
to the hippocampus
14. A patient
presents to you with a gun shot wound to the cortex and has recognizable but
unintelligible speech. You
suspect:
a. Damage
to the motor cortex
b. Damage
to BrocaÕs area
c. Damage
to sensory cortex
d. Damage
to WernickeÕs area
e. Damage to the hippocampus
15. Because of the structure of the
sensory/motor maps in the brain, stroke-induced BrocaÕs aphasia is often associated
with loss of the following:
a. Motor
control/sensation of the lower body
b. Motor
control/sensation of the upper body
c. Motor
control/sensation of the middle body
d. Motor
control/sensation of all extremities
e. Motor
control/sensation of the genitalia
16. You have a
split brain patient to work with.
You show the left brain a fork and which of the following will not allow
the patient to tell you what they saw:
a. Asking
them to tell you what they saw
b. Asking
them to point to a picture of what they saw
c. Asking
them to write out what they saw
d. Asking
them to pick up, by blind touch, what they saw
e. All
of the above will work
17. In general, what is NOT a way that
memory formation could be enhanced in humans?
a. Enhance
PKA signaling
b. Genetic
modification of NMDA receptor expression
c. Increase
BDNF expression
d. Reduced AMPA receptor expression
e. None
of the above
18. Your best friend takes an experimental
memory enhancing drug. Which of
the below would not apply to their experiences over the next 12 hours during
which this drug will operate?
a. They
will act like idiot savants
b. They
will develop lifelong memories of what they experience during this time
c. They
will ace their MCATÕs for which they crammed the day before
d. They
will remember everything you tell them in this time
e. All
of the above apply
19. You have become deaf as a teenager due
to physical damage to your inner
ear, and now at age 45 are being offered a cochlear implant. Which of the below are true?
a. It will work very well for you for you
b. As long as you have previous
exposure to a cochlear implant when you were very young it will work
c. If you take NMDA receptor blockers along with the surgery,
it should work
d. If you take AMPA receptor blockers
along with the surgery, it should work
e. All of the above are true.
20. You are not sure whether to take a
centrally or peripherally placed brain implant to cure the loss of both eyes in
a recent accident. Which of the
below best applies?
a. The
peripheral will be better as this type is never associated with infection
b. The
peripheral is better as these units are more easily up-gradable
c. The
central is better as it uses the existing optic nerve input
d. The
peripheral is better as no tissue damage at the site of the implant occurs
e. The
peripheral is better as the central input only works for young children
21. When you
were little, your grandmother always baked brownies whenyou visited her house.
Now, every time you smell brownies, you think of your grandmother. Why is
this?
a.
The neurons that code for the memories of your grandmother and the smell of
brownies were born at the same time.
b.
The neurons that code for the
memories of your grandmother and the smell of brownies often fired at the same
time when you were little, and now there are one or more synapses between the
two neurons.
c.
The neuron that codes for the smell of brownies is no longer releasing PKA,
which causes the neuron coding for your grandmother to fire.
d. The association between your
grandmother and brownies occurred outside a critical period for memory-making.
e. The two neurons were randomly connected
by the genome.
22. As a doctor, you see a stroke patient
who has trouble speaking clearly. You suspect that he has damage in BrocaÕs
area, but are aware that other problems can also cause speech difficulties. Which
of the following tests would you NOT need to do in order to support your
diagnosis?
a.
Test his mouth and tongue muscles to see if he has a physical inability to speak
b.
See if he can understand written directions.
c. See if he can write a
coherent paragraph.
d.
See if he can understand spoken directions.
e. Test presentation of images only to the
right or left cortex
What is the
correct DSM IV definition of the term(s) associated
with drug abuse?
a. Drug
addiction: impairment of daily life
b. Withdrawal:
exhibit negative symptoms when going off the drug
c. Tolerance:
short intermittent doses cause greater sensitivity to the drug
d. Sensitiztion:
need for increasing doses of the drug
e. Drug
abuse: dependence
23. A patient
is unable to produce speech and has difficulty moving his right arm. What is the most likely cause?
a. A stoke in the middle cerebral artery that
damages the left hemisphere
b. A stoke
in the middle cerebral artery that damages the right hemisphere
c. A stoke
in the anterior cerebral artery that damages the left hemisphere
d. A stoke
in the anterior cerebral artery that damages the right hemisphere
e.
None of the above
24. Phineas
Gage suffered from a major loss of his frontal lobes. What were his symptoms?
a.
Inability to form new memories
b.
Loss of feeling in his legs and feet
c.
Loss of planning and complex
psychological function
d.
Inability to understand spoken language
e.
None of the above
25. Which of
the following are components of synapse formation?
a. NMDA receptor activation
b.
BDNF release
c.
PKA activation
d.
Increase in AMPA receptors
e. All of the above
26. What part
of the brain is critical for vital functions such as breathing?
a.
Cortex
b. Brainstem
c.
Cerebellum
d.
Midbrain
e.
None of the above
What
are reasons dopamine/serotonin levels crash after a drug such as cocaine washes
out of the system?
a. Neurons run out of dopamine/serotonin
because reserves are used up
b.
Receptors for neurotransmitters
disappear in response to too much neurotransmitter
c. Neurons stop making dopamine/serotonin
because there is too much
d. All of the above
e. None of the above except d
27. Which of
the following owls CANNOT ÒlearnÓ to adapt their topographical auditory map in
order to correspond to a change in their visual map?
a.
A young owl
b.
A young owl with NMDA
inhibitors
c.
An old owl with previous experience as a juvenile
d.
An old owl that experiences small visual changes over time
e.
None of the above
What
is place reference?
a. condition where surrounding conditions associated with drug
taking are sought out and may induce cravings
b. condition where surroundings associated
with drug taking can be used to deter an individual from becoming addicted
c. phenomenon where adults can regain
hearing after choclear implant if subjected to familiar surroundings after the
implant
d. phenomenon where adult owls can regain
head orientation if placed in surroundings where they previously were able to
orient
28. Which of the below clinical strategies
will mostly likely have allowed Christopher
Reeve (who has a complete cut in the upper spinal cord) to walk again?
a. Treat him
pharmacological reagents, which increase synapse formation in the cortex
b. Treat him
pharmacological reagents, which increase synapse formation in the spinal cord
c. Add stem
cells to the cortex to make more neurons
d. Add stem
cells to the spinal cord to make more neurons
e. Find a way to get severed axons to cross
the cut and re-connect the spinal cord with the brain
29. Which of the following are true about
Autism?
a. Autism
often does not show up until children are 3-5 at which time they may show
developmental regression
b. Autisic
children generally show a loss of communication skills
c. Autism is
thought to be partially due to an as yet unidentified mutant gene
d.
Autistic children often begin to develop language skills but then abruptly stop
e.
All of the above
30. Psychosurgery is defined as the
following?
a. A means
to cut the corpus collosum to stop inappropriate thoughts from moving from one
side of the brain into the other
b. An
implant-type cure for autism
c.
A method to treat mental illness by removing the frontal lobes that is now
considered outdated and ineffective.
d. A way to
cure depression by adding stem cells to depleted serotonergic neuron stocks
e. None of
the above
31. Two theories for human consciousness
involve the neurobiological processes of binding and attention. With respect to these theories, which
of the below is true.
a. Binding
involves the connection of neurons via synapses
b. Attention
involves the interaction with loved ones during the critical periods of social development
c. Binding
involves the interaction of glutamate and its AMPA receptor
d. Attention is the neurobiological process
whereby select parts of a map become more sensitive to stimulus such that the
subject is more aware of, for instance, a sound heard from the side
e. Attention
is the neurobiological process whereby select parts of a map become less
sensitive to stimulus such that the subject is more aware of, for instance, a
sound heard from the side
32. Robo-rat, the joystick controlled rat,
was made in the following way?
a.
Electrodes were implanted into areas of the motor cortex and the rat was
directly instructed by a computer to move in a directed manner
b. Electrodes were implanted in both sensory
cortices which when stimulated gave the rat a ÔfeelingÕ on one side of its
face. When they turned towards
that stimulated direction, another electrode implanted into the pleasure
centers gave a rat a good feel encouraging it to obey the commands.
c.
Electrodes were placed into the visual cortex, which when stimulated caused
massive visual hallucinations and made the rat turn randomly. Ocne the rat was moving in the correct
direction, the stimulation stopped.
d. Cocaine
was pumped into brain when the rat turned to the right after hearing the
command ÒRIGHTÓ. This allowed
control to the right. A similar
strategy was used to go left.
e. None of
the above
33. You were born deaf and now wish to have
a cochlear implant. However, your
physician tells you that it will not likely work for you unless you also use
one of the below new proposed treatments.
Choose which you will need.
a. Take
drugs to decrease BDNF levels
b. Use a
special new antibiotic to block infections
c. Use a new
central version of such an implant to allow for easier upgrades
d. Genetically modify the neurons in the
region of the implant to increase the amount of NMDA receptor or BDNF
expression
e None of the above
34. Which one
of the following DSMIV definitions concerning drugs of abuse is incorrect?
a. Drug
abuse involves an impairment of daily life
b.Drug
addiction involves a dependence upon a substance
c. Tolerance
involves need to increase the doses taken over time
d. Withdrawal involves loss of social
interaction associated with drug abuse
e. All are
correct
35. Which area of the brain is thought to
be critically involved in the addiction process?
a.
Cerebellum
b. Medial
preoptic area
c. BrocaÕs
area
d. Nucleus accumbens
e. Brain
stem
36. Which of the below accurately describes
the responses, over time, of neurotransmitter levels to cocaine?
a. Serotonin
and dopamine levels stay at baseline after the drug arrives in the brain. As the drug is removed from the system,
serotonin and dopamine levels rise above baseline where they can stay for some
time.
b. Serotonin
and dopamine levels stay at baseline after the drug arrives in the brain. As the drug is removed from the system,
serotonin and dopamine levels drop to below baseline where they can stay for
some time.
c. Serotonin
and dopamine levels rapidly drop below baseline upon arrival of the drug in the
brain. As the drug is removed from
the system, serotonin and dopamine levels rise to above baseline where they can
stay for some time.
d. Serotonin and dopamine levels rise rapidly
well over baseline upon arrival of the drug in the brain. As the drug is removed from the system,
serotonin and dopamine levels drop to below baseline where they can stay for
some time.
e. None of
the above
37. Which of the following is incorrect?
a. Cocaine
blocks the dopamine reuptake pump and causes euphoria by increasing dopamine
levels
b.
Amphetamine blocks the dopamine reuptake pump and causes euphoria by increasing
dopamine levels
c. LSD blocks the dopamine reuptake pump and
therefore increases dopamine levels
d.
Psychedelics function by blocking certain serotonin receptors
e. All are
correct
38. Which of the following is incorrect?
a. SSRIÕs
raise serotonin levels and are used to treat mood disorders
b.
Anti-psychotics generally block dopamine receptors and are used to treat
schizophrenia
c. Anti-psychotics generally enhance dopamine
receptors and are used to treat schizophrenia
d. Anti-psychotics
generally cause motor dysfunction as an unwanted side effect
e. All are
correct
39. Which of the following would most
likely make the symptoms of schizophrenia worse?
a. Taking amphetamines
b. Taking
prozac
c. Taking
alcohol
d. Taking a
neuroleptic
e. None of
the above
40. Below are listed a set of hypotheses
for schizophrenia along with a piece of evidence to support each. Which is incorrect?
a.
Developmental hypothesis: environmental insults to the fetus in the first trimester
increases the chances of schizophrenia
b. Dopamine
hypothesis: blocking dopamine receptors decreases psychosis
c. Serotonin hypothesis: SSRIÕs decrease
psychosis
d. Glutamate
hypothesis: blocking the NMDA glutamate receptor with PCP/ketamine can cause a
psychosis-like condition
e. All of
the above are correct
41. Which of the below is not a DSM IV
symptom of schizophrenia?
a. Delusions
b.
Disorganized behavior
c. Anhedonia
d.
Hallucinations
e. All are symptoms
42. Which of the below is a DSM IV symptom
of major depression?
a. Emotional inexpressiveness
b.
Disorganized speech
c. Prolonged inability to enjoy once
pleasurable activities
d. Cycles of
manic phases
e. All are
symptoms
43. Which of the below are not used to
treat major depression?
a.
SSRIÕs
b. MAOI
c.
Electric shock therapy
d. St.
John's Wort
e.
All of the above are used
44. What is the
physical basis for drug tolerance?
a. The drug
is no longer able to cross the blood-brain barrier as easily.
b. The
addict learns to simulate normal behavior even while on the drug, so that the
same dose does not appear to have as great an effect.
c. The
neurons in the nucleus accumbens switch from producing serotonin to GABA.
d. The
concentration of encephalins increases with each dose of the drug.
e. The neurons respond to an overload of
neurotransmitter by removing the appropriate receptor and stopping production
of the neurotransmitter; the cells
are therefore unprepared when neurotransmitter levels return to normal.
45. Which of the below is an example of the
disease for which genetic diagnoses would
not be useful?
a.
Alzheimers disease
b. Asthma
c.
Alcoholism
d. Breast
cancer
e. Spinal cord injury
46. Which of the below best describes how a
DNA chip is made and used?
a. Oligonucleotides, complimentary (opposite
strand) to variants of disease genes are stuck onto a small surface; genomic
DNA from a patient is broken up into small oligonucleotides, labeled with a
light-producing indicator, and hybridized with chip. After washing, the
position of the light-producing spots indicate where bindings occurred and
therefore what variants of each gene the patient has.
b.
Oligonucleotides, complimentary (opposite strand) to variants of disease genes
are stuck onto a small surface; mitochondrial DNA from a patient is broken up
into small oligonucleotides, labeled with a light-producing indicator, and
hybridized with chip. After washing, the position of the light-producing spots
indicate where bindings occurred and therefore what variants of each gene the
patient has.
c.
Oligonucleotides, complimentary (opposite strand) to variants of disease genes
are stuck onto a small surface; genomic DNA from a patient is broken up into
small oligonucleotides, labeled with a light-producing indicator, and
hybridized with chip. After washing, the position of the light-producing spots
indicate where PCR has occurred and therefore what variants of each gene the
patient has.
d. Oligonucleotides,
complimentary (opposite strand) to variants of disease genes are stuck onto a
small surface; genomic DNA from a patient is broken up into small
oligonucleotides, the chip-bound DNA is labeled with a light-producing
indicator, and hybridized with genomic DNA. After washing, the position of the
light-producing spots indicate where bindings occurred and therefore what
variants of each gene the patient has.
e. None of
the above
47. Prozac takes many weeks to affect mood
symptoms yet is likely to block the serotonin transporter within hours. Regarding this fact, which of the below
statements is true?
a.
SSRI-driven high levels of serotonin may block cell division in the hippocampus
and this results in a reduction of stress after a few weeks.
b. The initial SSRI-driven increase of
serotonin is counteracted by negative feedback from the 5HT1 receptor which may
takes many weeks to finally balance out to a final increase in serotonin
levels.
c.
SSRI-driven high levels of serotonin result in an initial increase in Brca1
gene expression which blocks the mood effects of the drug early in treatment.
d. a,b and c
are all true
e. a,b and c
are all false