Note: new version of key: you have until Friday at 5:00 to protest

 

Exam 4: BIOL 149 2005

1.  What is the correct overall order of events in neural development?

a.   Cell birth, terminal branch formation, synapse pruning, axon extension, synapse formation

b.   Cell birth, axon extension, terminal branch formation, synapse pruning, synapse formation

c.   Cell birth, axon extension, terminal branch formation, synapse formation, synapse pruning

d.   Axon extension, terminal branch formation, cell birth, synapse formation, synapse pruning

e.   Axon extension, synapse formation, synapse pruning, terminal branch formation, cell birth

 

2. Under what conditions do neurons typically form connections with one another?

a.   When a series of neurons always fire one after another

b.   When a group of which always fire in alternative times

c.   When the two neurons always fire together

d.   When there are two neurons, one which fires rapidly and the other slowly

e.   When  both of two neurons fire strongly and rapidly

 

3. Which of the below best describes a topological neuronal map?

a.   Neurons which respond to sensory elements such as sound tones, points in space or specific odors tend to be located next to each other in the cortex

b.   Neurons which tend to wire together tend to avoid certain mapped regions of the brain

c.   A topological map is an anatomical atlas designed for neurosurgeons to find their way around the brain

d.   All of the above

e.   None of the above

 

4. How could neurons that detect a sound associate with neurons encoding a fearful memory, that is how are connections that associate memory formed?

a.   When neurons detecting the sound fire very strongly, such as when the sound is presented, this induces all nearby neurons to fire.  If the fear encoding neurons are nearby, these will also fire thus causing recall of the memory of a fearful memory

b.   If the neurons that detect the sound initially fired at the same time as the neurons encoding the memory fired, these neurons would become connected so that when the neurons that detect sound fire at a later time so do the connected neurons encoding the fearful memory

c.   Neurons encoding sounds and emotions lie together in a topological map thus always fire together

d.   None of the above

e.   All of the above, except d

 

5. What is glutamate and what is its function in the brain?

a.   Glutamate is a drug used to treat epilepsy and is encoded by the NMDA or AMPA genes

b.   Glutamate is a substance released by synapses in response to NMDA or AMPA receptor activation and blocks PKA function

c.   Glutamate, also called BDNF, is a neurotransmitter which activates the NMDA or AMPA receptors

d.   Glutamate, is a neurotransmitter which blocks the function of the NMDA or AMPA receptors

e.   None of the above

 

5. What are the two major glutamate receptor types and their associated functions?

a. AMPA: drives synaptic communication; NMDA: drives plasticity and memory formation

b. NMDA: drives synaptic communication; AMPA: drives plasticity and memory formation

c. BDNF: strengthens firing synapses; PKA: activates post-synaptic elements

d. PKA: strengthens firing synapses; BDNF: activates post-synaptic elements

e. None of the above are correct

 

6. For owl prism-directed head re-orientation, this occurs in adults only in the following scenarios:

a.   If the owl was pretreated with NMDA blockers

b.   If the owl had never been treated with prism distortion as a juvenile

c.   If the owl was treated sequentially with prisms of small steps sizes

d.   If the owl was pretreated with a cochlear implant

e.   None of the above

 

6. What did owl head orientation/prism experiments show about circuit formation early in development

a.   The circuits must be trained in very small stems

b.   Circuit formation requires visual/auditory input and NMDA receptor function

c.   Circuit formation always requires the presence of previous prism distortion

d.   New circuits only form when there has been pre-exposure to the stimulus

e.   All of the above

 

7. With respect to neuronal wiring, how might connections be broken?

a.   Longer term co-activation always results in degeneration of connections and thus loss of a memory

b.   Loss of the NMDA receptor with animal maturation results in connections breaking

c.   If neurons start to fire asynchronously, their interconnections weaken and break with time.

d.   The switchover from NMDA to AMPA-type receptors causes a breakdown in synapses

e.   None of the above.

 

8.  The human central nervous system consists, grossly, of the following structures connected in the following anatomical order:

a.   Cortex, brain stem, spinal cord, midbrain

b.   Cortex, midbrain, brainstem, spinal cord, cerebellum

c.   Cortex, brainstem, midbrain, cerebellum, spinal cord

d.   Cortex, midbrain, brainstem, spinal cord

e.   Cortex, spinal cord, brainstem, midbrain

 

9.  Information entering and leaving the cortex usually transits the below areas in the indicated orders:

a.   Sensory cortex, higher cortex, motor cortex

b.   Higher cortex, sensory cortex, motor cortex

c.   Motor cortex, higher cortex, sensory cortex

d.   Higher cortex, motor cortex, sensory cortex

e.   None of the above

 

What are the functions associated with the main divisions of the human brain?

a.         cerebral cortex: higher thought

b.         midbrain: emotion

c.         cerebellum: movements

d.         brain stem: basic functions

e.         all of the above

 

What are aphasias?

a.  loss in the ability to decide what motor actions to make in response to signal input

b.  loss of very specific language skills

c.  loss of sensation and motor control below the point of injury

d.  a decline in decision making skills

e.  all of the above

 

10. A patient presents to you with a gun shot wound to the cortex and complains of loss of motor control to the arm.  You suspect:

a.   Damage to the motor cortex

b.   Damage to Broca’s area

c.   Damage to sensory cortex

d.   Damage to Wernicke’s area

e.   Damage to the hippocampus

 

 

11. A patient presents to you with a gun shot wound to the cortex and complains of loss of sensation in the arm.  You suspect:

a.   Damage to the motor cortex

b.   Damage to Broca’s area

c.   Damage to sensory cortex

d.   Damage to Wernicke’s area

e.   Damage to the hippocampus

 

12. A patient presents to you with a gun shot wound to the cortex and complains, via writing, of an inability to speak.  You suspect:

a.   Damage to the motor cortex

b.   Damage to Broca’s area

c.   Damage to sensory cortex

d.   Damage to Wernicke’s area

e.   Damage to the hippocampus

 

13. A patient presents to you with a gun shot wound to the cortex and shows no ability to hold recent memories.  You suspect:

a.   Damage to the motor cortex

b.   Damage to Broca’s area

c.   Damage to sensory cortex

d.   Damage to Wernicke’s area

e.  Damage to the hippocampus

 

14. A patient presents to you with a gun shot wound to the cortex and has recognizable but unintelligible speech.  You suspect:

a.   Damage to the motor cortex

b.   Damage to Broca’s area

c.   Damage to sensory cortex

d.   Damage to Wernicke’s area

e.  Damage to the hippocampus

 

15.  Because of the structure of the sensory/motor maps in the brain, stroke-induced Broca’s aphasia is often associated with loss of the following:

a.   Motor control/sensation of the lower body

b.   Motor control/sensation of the upper body

c.   Motor control/sensation of the middle body

d.   Motor control/sensation of all extremities

e.   Motor control/sensation of the genitalia

 

16. You have a split brain patient to work with.  You show the left brain a fork and which of the following will not allow the patient to tell you what they saw:

a.   Asking them to tell you what they saw

b.   Asking them to point to a picture of what they saw

c.   Asking them to write out what they saw

d.   Asking them to pick up, by blind touch, what they saw

e.   All of the above will work

 

17.  In general, what is NOT a way that memory formation could be enhanced in humans?

a.   Enhance PKA signaling

b.   Genetic modification of NMDA receptor expression

c.   Increase BDNF expression

d.   Reduced AMPA receptor expression

e.   None of the above

 

18.  Your best friend takes an experimental memory enhancing drug.  Which of the below would not apply to their experiences over the next 12 hours during which this drug will operate?

a.   They will act like idiot savants

b.   They will develop lifelong memories of what they experience during this time

c.   They will ace their MCAT’s for which they crammed the day before

d.   They will remember everything you tell them in this time

e.   All of the above apply

 

19.  You have become deaf as a teenager due to physical damage to your  inner ear, and now at age 45 are being offered a cochlear implant.  Which of the below are true?

  a. It will work very well for you for you

  b. As long as you have previous exposure to a cochlear implant when you were very young it will work

  c.  If you take NMDA receptor blockers along with the surgery, it should work

  d. If you take AMPA receptor blockers along with the surgery, it should work

   e. All of the above are true.

 

20.  You are not sure whether to take a centrally or peripherally placed brain implant to cure the loss of both eyes in a recent accident.  Which of the below best applies?

a.   The peripheral will be better as this type is never associated with infection

b.   The peripheral is better as these units are more easily up-gradable

c.   The central is better as it uses the existing optic nerve input

d.   The peripheral is better as no tissue damage at the site of the implant occurs

e.   The peripheral is better as the central input only works for young children

 

21. When you were little, your grandmother always baked brownies whenyou visited her house. †Now, every time you smell brownies, you think of your grandmother. †Why is this?         a. The neurons that code for the memories of your grandmother and the smell of brownies were born at the same time.             b. The neurons that code for the memories of your grandmother and the smell of brownies often fired at the same time when you were little, and now there are one or more synapses between the two neurons. †       c. The neuron that codes for the smell of brownies is no longer releasing PKA, which causes the neuron coding for your grandmother to fire.   d. The association between your grandmother and brownies occurred outside a critical period for memory-making.            e.  The two neurons were randomly connected by the genome.

 

22.  As a doctor, you see a stroke patient who has trouble speaking clearly. †You suspect that he has damage in Broca’s area, but are aware that other problems can also cause speech difficulties. †Which of the following tests would you NOT need to do in order to support your diagnosis?           a. Test his mouth and tongue muscles to see if he has a physical inability      to speak         b. See if he can understand written directions.      c. See if he can write a coherent paragraph.   d. See if he can understand spoken directions.     e. Test presentation of images only to the right or left cortex

 

What is the correct DSM IV definition of the term(s) associated with drug abuse?

a.         Drug addiction: impairment of daily life

b.         Withdrawal: exhibit negative symptoms when going off the drug

c.         Tolerance: short intermittent doses cause greater sensitivity to the drug

d.         Sensitiztion: need for increasing doses of the drug

e.         Drug abuse: dependence

 

23. A patient is unable to produce speech and has difficulty moving his right arm.  What is the most likely cause?

a. A stoke in the middle cerebral artery that damages the left hemisphere

b. A stoke in the middle cerebral artery that damages the right hemisphere

c. A stoke in the anterior cerebral artery that damages the left hemisphere

d. A stoke in the anterior cerebral artery that damages the right hemisphere

            e. None of the above

 

24. Phineas Gage suffered from a major loss of his frontal lobes.  What were his symptoms?

            a. Inability to form new memories

            b. Loss of feeling in his legs and feet

            c. Loss of planning and complex psychological function

            d. Inability to understand spoken language

            e. None of the above

 

25. Which of the following are components of synapse formation?

            a. NMDA receptor activation

            b. BDNF release

            c. PKA activation

            d. Increase in AMPA receptors          

            e. All of the above

 

26. What part of the brain is critical for vital functions such as breathing?

            a. Cortex

            b. Brainstem

            c. Cerebellum

            d. Midbrain

            e. None of the above

 

What are reasons dopamine/serotonin levels crash after a drug such as cocaine washes out of the system?

            a.  Neurons run out of dopamine/serotonin because reserves are used up

            b.  Receptors for neurotransmitters disappear in response to too much neurotransmitter

            c.  Neurons stop making dopamine/serotonin because there is too much

            d.  All of the above

            e.  None of the above except d

 

27. Which of the following owls CANNOT “learn” to adapt their topographical auditory map in order to correspond to a change in their visual map?

            a. A young owl

            b. A young owl with NMDA inhibitors

            c. An old owl with previous experience as a juvenile

            d. An old owl that experiences small visual changes over time

            e. None of the above

 

What is place reference?

            a.  condition where surrounding conditions associated with drug taking are sought out and may induce cravings

            b.  condition where surroundings associated with drug taking can be used to deter an individual from becoming addicted

            c.  phenomenon where adults can regain hearing after choclear implant if subjected to familiar surroundings after the implant

            d.  phenomenon where adult owls can regain head orientation if placed in surroundings where they previously were able to orient

 

28.  Which of the below clinical strategies will mostly likely have allowed Christopher Reeve (who has a complete cut in the upper spinal cord) to walk again?

a. Treat him pharmacological reagents, which increase synapse formation  in the cortex

b. Treat him pharmacological reagents, which increase synapse formation  in the spinal cord

c. Add stem cells to the cortex to make more neurons

d. Add stem cells to the spinal cord to make more neurons

e. Find a way to get severed axons to cross the cut and re-connect the spinal cord with the brain

 

29.  Which of the following are true about Autism?

a. Autism often does not show up until children are 3-5 at which time they may show developmental regression

b. Autisic children generally show a loss of communication skills

c. Autism is thought to be partially due to an as yet unidentified mutant gene

d. Autistic children often begin to develop language skills but then abruptly stop

e. All of the above

 

30.  Psychosurgery is defined as the following?

a. A means to cut the corpus collosum to stop inappropriate thoughts from moving from one side of the brain into the other

b. An implant-type cure for autism

c. A method to treat mental illness by removing the frontal lobes that is now considered outdated and ineffective.

d. A way to cure depression by adding stem cells to depleted serotonergic neuron stocks

e. None of the above

 

 

31.  Two theories for human consciousness involve the neurobiological processes of binding and attention.  With respect to these theories, which of the below is true.

a. Binding involves the connection of neurons via synapses

b. Attention involves the interaction with loved ones during the critical  periods of social development

c. Binding involves the interaction of glutamate and its AMPA receptor

d. Attention is the neurobiological process whereby select parts of a map become more sensitive to stimulus such that the subject is more aware of, for instance, a sound heard from the side

e. Attention is the neurobiological process whereby select parts of a map become less sensitive to stimulus such that the subject is more aware of, for instance, a sound heard from the side

 

32.  Robo-rat, the joystick controlled rat, was made in the following way?

a. Electrodes were implanted into areas of the motor cortex and the rat was directly instructed by a computer to move in a directed manner

b. Electrodes were implanted in both sensory cortices which when stimulated gave the rat a ‘feeling’ on one side of its face.  When they turned towards that stimulated direction, another electrode implanted into the pleasure centers gave a rat a good feel encouraging it to obey the commands.

c. Electrodes were placed into the visual cortex, which when stimulated caused massive visual hallucinations and made the rat turn randomly.  Ocne the rat was moving in the correct direction, the stimulation stopped.

d. Cocaine was pumped into brain when the rat turned to the right after hearing the command “RIGHT”.  This allowed control to the right.  A similar strategy was used to go left.

e. None of the above

 

33.  You were born deaf and now wish to have a cochlear implant.  However, your physician tells you that it will not likely work for you unless you also use one of the below new proposed treatments.  Choose which you will need.

a. Take drugs to decrease BDNF levels

b. Use a special new antibiotic to block infections

c. Use a new central version of such an implant to allow for easier upgrades

d. Genetically modify the neurons in the region of the implant to increase the amount of NMDA receptor or BDNF expression

e None of the above

 

 

34. Which one of the following DSMIV definitions concerning drugs of abuse is incorrect?

a.   Drug abuse involves an impairment of daily life

b.Drug addiction involves a dependence upon a substance

c. Tolerance involves need to increase the doses taken over time

d. Withdrawal involves loss of social interaction associated with drug abuse

e. All are correct

 

35.  Which area of the brain is thought to be critically involved in the addiction process?

a. Cerebellum

b. Medial preoptic area

c. Broca’s area

d. Nucleus accumbens

e. Brain stem

 

36.  Which of the below accurately describes the responses, over time, of neurotransmitter levels to cocaine?

a. Serotonin and dopamine levels stay at baseline after the drug arrives in the brain.  As the drug is removed from the system, serotonin and dopamine levels rise above baseline where they can stay for some time.

b. Serotonin and dopamine levels stay at baseline after the drug arrives in the brain.  As the drug is removed from the system, serotonin and dopamine levels drop to below baseline where they can stay for some time.

c. Serotonin and dopamine levels rapidly drop below baseline upon arrival of the drug in the brain.  As the drug is removed from the system, serotonin and dopamine levels rise to above baseline where they can stay for some time.

d. Serotonin and dopamine levels rise rapidly well over baseline upon arrival of the drug in the brain.  As the drug is removed from the system, serotonin and dopamine levels drop to below baseline where they can stay for some time.

e. None of the above

 

37.  Which of the following is incorrect?

a. Cocaine blocks the dopamine reuptake pump and causes euphoria by increasing dopamine levels

b. Amphetamine blocks the dopamine reuptake pump and causes euphoria by increasing dopamine levels

c. LSD blocks the dopamine reuptake pump and therefore increases dopamine levels

d. Psychedelics function by blocking certain serotonin receptors

e. All are correct

 

38.  Which of the following is incorrect?

a. SSRI’s raise serotonin levels and are used to treat mood disorders

b. Anti-psychotics generally block dopamine receptors and are used to treat schizophrenia

c. Anti-psychotics generally enhance dopamine receptors and are used to treat schizophrenia

d. Anti-psychotics generally cause motor dysfunction as an unwanted side effect

e. All are correct

 

39.  Which of the following would most likely make the symptoms of schizophrenia worse?

a. Taking amphetamines

b. Taking prozac

c. Taking alcohol

d. Taking a neuroleptic

e. None of the above

 

40.  Below are listed a set of hypotheses for schizophrenia along with a piece of evidence to support each.  Which is incorrect?

a. Developmental hypothesis: environmental insults to the fetus in the first trimester increases the chances of schizophrenia

b. Dopamine hypothesis: blocking dopamine receptors decreases psychosis

c. Serotonin hypothesis: SSRI’s decrease psychosis

d. Glutamate hypothesis: blocking the NMDA glutamate receptor with PCP/ketamine can cause a psychosis-like condition

e. All of the above are correct

 

41.  Which of the below is not a DSM IV symptom of schizophrenia?

a. Delusions

b. Disorganized behavior

c. Anhedonia

d. Hallucinations

e. All are symptoms

 

42.  Which of the below is a DSM IV symptom of major depression?

a.  Emotional inexpressiveness

b. Disorganized speech

c. Prolonged inability to enjoy once pleasurable activities

d. Cycles of manic phases

e. All are symptoms

 

43.  Which of the below are not used to treat major depression?

a. SSRI’s

b. MAOI

c. Electric shock therapy

d. St. John's Wort

e. All of the above are used

 

44. What is the physical basis for drug tolerance?

a. The drug is no longer able to cross the blood-brain barrier as easily.

b. The addict learns to simulate normal behavior even while on the drug, so that the same dose does not appear to have as great an effect.

c. The neurons in the nucleus accumbens switch from producing serotonin to GABA.

d. The concentration of encephalins increases with each dose of the drug.

e. The neurons respond to an overload of neurotransmitter by removing the appropriate receptor and stopping production of the neurotransmitter;  the cells are therefore unprepared when neurotransmitter levels return to normal.

 

45.  Which of the below is an example of the disease for which genetic diagnoses would  not be useful?

a. Alzheimers disease

b. Asthma

c. Alcoholism

d. Breast cancer

e. Spinal cord injury

 

46.  Which of the below best describes how a DNA chip is made and used?

a. Oligonucleotides, complimentary (opposite strand) to variants of disease genes are stuck onto a small surface; genomic DNA from a patient is broken up into small oligonucleotides, labeled with a light-producing indicator, and hybridized with chip. After washing, the position of the light-producing spots indicate where bindings occurred and therefore what variants of each gene the patient has.

b. Oligonucleotides, complimentary (opposite strand) to variants of disease genes are stuck onto a small surface; mitochondrial DNA from a patient is broken up into small oligonucleotides, labeled with a light-producing indicator, and hybridized with chip. After washing, the position of the light-producing spots indicate where bindings occurred and therefore what variants of each gene the patient has.

c. Oligonucleotides, complimentary (opposite strand) to variants of disease genes are stuck onto a small surface; genomic DNA from a patient is broken up into small oligonucleotides, labeled with a light-producing indicator, and hybridized with chip. After washing, the position of the light-producing spots indicate where PCR has occurred and therefore what variants of each gene the patient has.

d. Oligonucleotides, complimentary (opposite strand) to variants of disease genes are stuck onto a small surface; genomic DNA from a patient is broken up into small oligonucleotides, the chip-bound DNA is labeled with a light-producing indicator, and hybridized with genomic DNA. After washing, the position of the light-producing spots indicate where bindings occurred and therefore what variants of each gene the patient has.

e. None of the above

 

47.  Prozac takes many weeks to affect mood symptoms yet is likely to block the serotonin transporter within hours.  Regarding this fact, which of the below statements is true?

a. SSRI-driven high levels of serotonin may block cell division in the hippocampus and this results in a reduction of stress after a few weeks.

b. The initial SSRI-driven increase of serotonin is counteracted by negative feedback from the 5HT1 receptor which may takes many weeks to finally balance out to a final increase in serotonin levels.

c. SSRI-driven high levels of serotonin result in an initial increase in Brca1 gene expression which blocks the mood effects of the drug early in treatment.

d. a,b and c are all true

e. a,b and c are all false